Liverpool & South West Lancashire FHS - Forum

This is a mundane question but I don't seem to be able to find the answer anywhere. I was looking at some old Electoral Registers for Bootle today (1920's). In those days there were different requirements for local and parliamentary elections. There was a age and residence qualification for the parliamentary vote but the local elections required a property qualification.

What was the property requirement? I know you were allowed to have more than one local vote if you had seperate business premises. Was it simply tied to being a ratepayer?

I'm prompted to ask because my grandfather was eligible at both local and parliamentary levels (and his wife likewise) but his adult nephew who was living with him was only eligible for Parliamentary elections.

Gareth

I think the early 20th century electoral registers have a page at the front that gives the definitions of who is eligible to vote.

I also thought that by the 1920s all men had the vote but I am probably wrong.

I think in the early days you had the vote if you owned property or rented property over a certain value. I don't think it had anything to do with being a ratepayer.

I presume you saw the electoral rolls at Crosby library as I know they hold the Bootle rolls - if you contact the Lodcal History Librarian there I'm sure he'll be able to give you the definite answer.